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Cisco (642-577) : Wireless LAN for System Engineers

2008-11-05T08:48:00.000-08:00

Cisco(642-577):Wireless LAN for System Engineers

Q1. WECA promotes __ wireless technology
a. WLAN
b. WiFi
c. Wireless adaptation
d. WECA technology

Ans. b

Q2. Which parameter is available on the Express Setup screen of the
Access Point?
a. SSID
b. Role in radio network
c. both a and b
d. None of the above

Ans. c

Q3. Which tool is not applicable to Cisco WLAN?
a. CDM, Cisco Device Manager
b. RF sniffers
c. MIBs
d. Windows2000

Ans. a

Q4. Fast Secure Roaming improves total latency time associated with the roam from >
500 ms to __
a. <250 ms
b. <150 ms
c. <100 ms
d. <200 ms

Ans. b

Q5. __ number of WEP keys is what the client needs to configure in each cell
using Cisco server-based authentication
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Ans. b

Q6. WLAN is connected by
a. Radio frequencies
b. Cat5 cable
c. Twisted pair
d. Ultra Violet rays

Ans. a

Q7. Which authentication types are not defined by 802.11?
a. shared key
b. EAP-TLS
c. open
d. closed

Ans. b

Q8. EIRP is measured in __
a. dBa
b. dBi
c. dBm
d. dBx

Ans. c

Q9. which is unsuitable for discovering an IP address for a given Access Point?
a. IPSU
b. CDP
c. web browser
d. console port

Ans. c

Q10. Which program is used to push profiles out to multiple Cisco Aironet clients?
a. ACM
b. ACDU
c. ACAU
d. ACU

Ans. c

Q11. No licensing is required for which of the following RF bands?
a. 830-850MHz
b. 902-928 MHz
c. 2.400-2.483 GHz
d. 5.150-5.350 GHz
e. 5.725-5.825 GHz

Ans. b,c,d,e

Q12. If the gain of the antenna goes up, the beamwidth _______.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. No change
d. polarity changes

Ans. a

Q13. Which is not required for WPA v1 for Enterprise Class Access Point?
a. WPA migrationMode
b. 256 bit encryption
c. Unicast and broadcast key management
d. 802.1 X authentication

Ans. b

Q14. What is the maximum number of wired clients that can send packets through the
WGB342 to an Access point?
a. 8
b. 18
c. 10
d. unlimited

Ans. a

Q15. Cisco Aironet 350 Series Client Adapters for notebook computers are available
in __ formats?
a. ISA
b. ISD
c. PCMCIA
d. PCI

Ans. c,d

Q16. Antennas that Cisco sells for the Aironet product line
are __ polarized
a. Vertically
b. horizontally
c. diagonally
d. Depends on antenna

Ans. a

Q17. Which value is not required in configuring ACS when adding an AP to ACS database
a. RADIUS shared secret
b. broadcast WEP key
c. Unique name for AP (AAA) in ACS database
d. AP hostname or IP address

Ans. b

Q18. The following port is monitored in hot standby mode to determine if Primary
access point isstil alive.
a. Radio port
b. Ethernet port
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

Ans. c

Q19. __ number of authentication servers can be confogured on access point
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 1

Ans. a

Q20. Which IEEE 802.11 task group is responsible for the development of WLAN
security standards?
a. 802.11a
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11f
d. 802.11i

Ans. d

IBM Test 000-285 Sample Questions

2008-11-05T08:44:00.000-08:00

IBM Test 000-285 Sample Questions
Q1. Which searches can be performed within the WebSphere Studio Workbench?
a. Text
b. Regular Expression based
c. Syntactical
d. Java

Ans. d

Q2.Which of the following are valid properties of Schema?
a. Cluster
b. Database Name
c. Folder
d. Name

Ans. b,c,d

Q3. How can you monitor requests and responses between application server and
a Web browser?
a. monitors
b. agents
c. watchdog functions
d. TCP-IP Monitoring Server

Ans. d

Q4. In which directory, the web.xml file must reside under the
context of the hierarchy of directories for a Web Application?
a. WEB
b. WEB-INF
c. CLASSES
d. LIB

Ans. b

Q5. Which component automatically manages refactoring for Websphere developer?
a. JIT
b. JDT

Ans. b

Q6. If content assist is available for the positioned cursor, and a pop-up list of available choices is displayed while launching content assist, which is based on:
a. Directory Tree
b. schema
c. content
d. context

Ans. d

Q7. Which amongst them is valid for Web session management for server
instance?
a. Enable SSL keys
b. Enable Cookies
c. Enable URL rewriting
d. Enable URL substitution

Ans. b,d

Q8. "Java content assist is available", this is best described by-
a. Web Projects
b. EJB Projects
c. Scriptlets
d. All of the above

Ans. a,c

Q9. Entity beans with Container Managed Persistence fields are mapped to?
a. Database tables
b. Columns
c. Rows
d. Databases

Ans. a,b

Q10. Which of them is the WebSphere Studio debugger's function?
a. Remote debug
d. Thread suspension
c. Step over and step in
d. Set breakpoints
e. All of the above

Ans. e

Q11. tag is used for?
a. get a property value in a JavaBean
b. set a property value in a JavaBean
c. redirection
d. all of these, but in a different manner

Ans. b

Q13. Suppose you have an EJB project.When you import into this project, what happens
to Deployment Descriptor and Extension Information:
a. They get merged
b. They get overwritten
c. They get copied
d. No change

Ans. a

Q14. HTML content assist can be accessed by:
a. Shift f5
b. Ctrl Space
c. Select File menu, Select Content assist
d. none of these

Q15. Which is necessary to query database in WebSphere studio?
a. SQL builder plugin
b. Presence of data in a database
c. Access to database
d. All three

Ans. a,c

Q16. Server configuration contains information required for _
a. Project set up
b. Project removal
c. Set up and publish server
d. EJB creation

Ans. c

Q17. In which case VM does not terminats?
a. System.exit()call
b. Page is closed
c. Page is terminated in debugger
d. All of the above

Ans. d

Q18. In Export wizard, which export destination is invalid?
a. RAR file
b. WAR file
c. SQL datbase
d. CVS file
e. FTP

Ans. c,d

Q19. Which of the following is not supported by Websphere Studio V5.0?
a. Informix
b. DB2
c. PeopleSoft
d. Sybase

Ans. c

Q20. Consider the host variable :HOST. Which is the database vendor then?
a. MySql
b. PeopleSoft
c. DB2
d. Oracle
e. Informix

Ans. c,d,e

Q21. How can we filter tables from a view of a database?
a. Programming to restrict JDBC
b. Can not be filtered
c. Restricting resultset programmatically
d. Adding a filter using DBExplorer

Ans. d

Q22. When creating a new server project, server instance identifies -
a. containers
b. components
c. server
d. Runtime environment

Ans. d

Cisco(9E0-851) Questions

2008-11-05T08:42:00.000-08:00

Cisco(9E0-851): Customer Response solution, CRS
Q1. Which JTAPI call state is not controlled by the system?
a. Received
b. Answered
c. Rejected
d. Accepted

Ans. c

Q2. CRS subsystem responsible for the connection between application server and speech files is:
a. Server subsystem
b. Database subsystem
c. Application subsystem
d. Media subsystem

Ans. c

Q3. Which step does not perform logical operations?
a. If
b. Switch
c. for
d. goto

Ans. c,d

Q4. In order to play text as speech, CRS server has to make__
a. Text document
b. ASR document
c. File document
d. TTS prompt

Ans. d

Q5. Which step gets added to the script automatically, if not given?
a. Start
b. End
c. Connect
d. Reject
e. all of the above

Ans. a

Q6. In which step, you answer the call from call Manager.
a. Connect
b. Accept
c. Start
d. Begin
e. Any of them can be used

Ans. b

Q7. __ number of enterprise Data fields are available to CRS applications.
a. 250
b. 200
c. 201
d. 231

Ans. d

Q8. Which SQL command cannot be used in DB WRITE step?
a. SQL Insert
b. Insert
c. Update
d. Delete

Ans. a

Q9. In order to get data from LDAP for a user, perform the following step.
a. Get User Info
b. Get Call Info
c. Get User
d. Get Call

Ans. a

Q10. Which is not a CRS subsystem?
a. JTAPI
b. ICD
c. Email
d. Server

Ans. d

Q11. Call redirect step is in __ Pallette.
a. Session
b. Application
c. Call contact
d. Call reject

Ans. c

Q12. Which call state is not controlled by CRS application.
a. Transferred
b. Disconnected
c. Accepted
d. Abandoned

Ans. c

Q13. In order to check out a database connection, following two steps are used.
a. DB Read and DB Write
b. DB Get and DB Read
c. DB Write and DB Get
d. DB Read, DB Write and DB Get

Ans. a

Q14. JTAPI provider is the IP address of __
a. Call Receiver
b. Call Manager
c. CRS server
d. Publisher

Ans. b

Q15. Before sending an email, the necessary step is
a. Attach email
b. Create email
c. Send email
d. cc email

Ans. b

Q16. TTS is
a. Text to Signal
b. Text to Sound
c. Text to Speech
d. Text to Speech Synthesis

Ans. c

Q17. Which is not the necessary step:
a. Create mail
b. Send mail
c. Attach to mail
d. cc mail

Ans. c,d

Q18. DB Get happens only after
a. DB Read
b. DB Write
c. DB Edit
d. DB Release

Ans. a

Q19. Real Time CRS Reports have time frame of
a. Past 5 mins
b. Past 1 day
c. Only current information
d. Last one month information.

Ans. c

Q20. An agent may have
a. 10 skills
b. 50 skills
c. Unlimited skills
d. 0 skills

Ans. b

CCNA Certification Dumps

2008-08-30T07:00:00.000-07:00

1 As system administrator, you type "debug ipx sap" and receive the following lines as part of the IOS response: type 0x4, "HELLO2", 199.0002.0003.0006 (451), 2 hops type 0x4, "HELLO1", 199.0002.0003.0008 (451), 2 hops What does "0x4" signify?

A. That is a Get Nearest Server response.

B. That it is a General query.

C. That it is a General response.

D. That it is a Get Nearest Server request.

Ans A

2 To monitor IP igrp traffic, you can use "debug IP igrp transaction" or "debug IP igrp events". How do you display information about IPX routing update packets?

A. debug routing

B. debug ipx transaction

C. debug ipx routing activity

D. debug ipx events

Ans: C

3 To monitor ipx traffic on a network, what command would you use?

A. debug ipx transaction

B. show ipx traffic

C. show ipx events

D. display ipx traffic

Ans B

4 What command would you use to find out the names of Novell servers on a network?

A. show ipx servers

B. show ipx hosts

C. show ipx sap

D. show ipx nodes.

Ans A

5 The "ipx delay number" command will allow an administrator to change the default settings. What are the default settings?

A. For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks

B. For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces, one tick

C. For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN interfaces, five ticks

D. For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN interfaces, zero Ticks

Ans A

The default is--for LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks

6 As a system administrator, you need to set up one Ethernet interface on the Cisco router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether encapsulations. Which set of commands will accomplish this?

A. interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx network 6c

B. interface ethernet 0 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c

C. interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap

D. interface ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c

Ans D

The following commands setup the subinterfaces to allow for two types of encapsulation: interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c

7 What does the "IPX maximum-paths 2" command accomplish?

A. It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths.

B. It sets up routing to go to network 2.

C. It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing.

D. It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are unequal metric paths.

Ans A

It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1 path and the maximum is 512 paths.

8 You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one router interface. How do you do this?

A. The interface can handle multiple encapsulation types with no extra configuration.

B. Assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation type.

C. Enable Novell-ether to run multiple encapsulation types.

D. Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so you don't have to configure anything.

Ans B

To assign multiple network numbers, you usually use subinterfaces. A sample configuration follows: ipx ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c

By default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs to remote networks.

A. False

B. True

Ans A

GNS is Novell's protocol to Get Nearest Server. If there is a server on the local network, that server will respond. If there isn't, the Cisco router has to be configured to forward the GNS SAP.

9 To prevent Service Advertisements (SAPs) from flooding a network, Cisco routers do not forward them. How are services advertised to other networks?

A. Each router builds its own SAP table and forwards that every 60 seconds.

B. Each router assigns a service number and broadcasts that.

C. SAPs aren't necessary with Cisco routers.

D. Cisco routers filter out all SAPs.

Ans: A

Cisco routers build SAP tables and forward the table every 60 seconds. All SAPs can't be filtered even with 4.x since NDS and time synchronization uses SAPs.

10 Novell's implementation of RIP updates routing tables every ____ seconds.

A. 60

B. 90

C. 10

D. 30

Ans A

Novell's RIP updates routing tables every 60 seconds, Apple's RTMP is every 10 seconds, routers ARP every 60 seconds, IGRP signal every 90 seconds, and Banyan VINES signals every 90 seconds.

11 In Novell's use of RIP, there are two metrics used to make routing decisions. Select the two metrics.

A. Ticks.

B. Hops

C. Loops

D. Counts

Ans:A &B

It first uses ticks (which is about 1/18 sec.); if there is a tie, it uses hops; if hops are equal, then it uses an administratively assigned tiebreaker.

12 What is the Cisco name for the encapsulation type used on a serial interface?

A. HDLC

B. SDLC

C. SAP

D. SNAP

Ans A

13 "arpa" is used by the Cisco IOS for which encapsulation types?

A. Ethernet_II

B. Ethernet_802.3

C. Ethernet_802.2

D. Ethernet_SNAP

Ans A

Novell's IPX and Cisco's IOS name their protocols differently. Cisco uses sap for Ethernet_802.2, Token-Ring, and Novell's FDDI_802.2. Cisco uses snap for Ethernet_SNAP, Token-Ring_SNAP, and FDDI_SNAP. Cisco uses arpa for Ethernet_II and, finally the default is Novell-ether for Novell's Ethernet_802.3.

14 "snap" is used by the Cisco IOS for which encapsulation types?

A. Ethernet_SNAP

B. Token-Ring_SNAP

C. FDDI_SNAP

D. Novell-SNAP

E. Novell-FDDI.

Ans: A,B &C Novell's IPX and Cisco's IOS name their protocols differently. Cisco uses sap for Ethernet_802.2, Token-Ring, and Novell's FDDI_802.2. Cisco uses snap for Ethernet_SNAP, Token-Ring_SNAP, and FDDI_SNAP. Cisco uses arpa for Ethernet_II and, finally the default is Novell-ether for Novell's Ethernet_802.3.

15"sap" is used by the Cisco IOS for which encapsulation types?

A. Ethernet_802.2

B. Token-Ring

C. FDDI_SNAP

D. Ethernet_802.3

E. FDDI_802.2

Ans A,B &E

16 Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and AppleTalk?

A. Ethernet 802.3

B. Ethernet 802.2

C. Ethernet II

D. Ethernet SNAP

Ans D

Ethernet 802.3 is used with NetWare versions 2 through 3.11, Ethernet 802.2 is used with NetWare 3.12 and later plus OSI routing, Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and DECnet, and Ethernet SNAP is used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk.

17 Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and DECnet?

A. Ethernet 802.3

B. Ethernet 802.2

C. Ethernet II

D. Ethernet SNAP

Ans: C

18 You are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you are running NetWare 4.11 and you cannot communicate with your router. What is the likely problem?

A. NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation.

B. NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation

C. Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11.

D. NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation.

Ans A

The default encapsulation on Cisco routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare 3.12 and later defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier defaults to 802.3.

19 NetWare IPX addressing uses a network number and a node number. Which statements are true?

A. The network address is administratively assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits long.

B. The node address is always administratively assigned.

C. The node address is usually the MAC address.

D. If the MAC address is used as the node address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP.

Ans A, C &D

The network address can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits in length. The node number is 12 hexadecimal digits. The node address is usually the MAC address. An example IPX address is 4a1d.0000.0c56.de33. The network part is 4a1d. The node part is 0000.0c56.de33. The network number is assigned by the system administrator of the Novell network.

20 Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3--network layer—of the OSI model?

A. IPX

B. NCP

C. SPX

D. NetBIOS

Ans A

IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) is a NetWare network layer 3 protocol used for transferring information on LANs.

21 Which NetWare protocol provides link-state routing?

A. NLSP

B. RIP

C. SAP

D. NCP

Ans: A

NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP (Service Advertisement Protocol) advertises network services. NCP (NetWare Core Protocol) provides client-to-server connections and applications. RIP is a distance vector routing protocol.

22 As a system administrator, you want to debug igrp but are worried that the "debug IP igrp transaction" command will flood the console. What is the command that you should use?

A. debug IP igrp event

B. debug IP igrp-events

C. debug IP igrp summary

D. debug IP igrp events

Ans D

The "debug IP igrp events" is used to only display a summary of IGRP routing information. You can append an IP address onto either command to see only the IGRP updates from a neighbor.

23 What does the following series of commands accomplish? router igrp 71 network 10.0.0.0 router igrp 109 network 172.68.7.0

A. It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0.

B. It loads igrp for networks 109 and 71.

C. It disables RIP.

D. It disables all routing protocols.

Ans A

It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 and associates autonomous systems 109 and 71 with IGRP. IGRP does not disable RIP, both can be used at the same time.

24 In the command "router igrp 109" what does 109 signify?

A. an autonomous system

B. any network number which the router is attached to

C. the allowable length of the routing table

D. the network socket number

Ans A

The Cisco IOS global configuration command "router igrp xxx" is used to configure the Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. In this case, the 109 is called the process-id , which can also be used for an autonomous system number.

25 IGRP supports a feature that allows traffic to be distributed among up to 6 (4 default) paths to provide greater overall throughput and reliability. What is this called?

A. unequal-cost load balancing

B. equal-cost load balancing

C. proportionate load balancing

D. low cost load balancing

Ans A

An unequal-cost load balancing is used to provide alternate paths for data distribution on an internetwork. Cisco developed this method to use unused or under utilized links to increase bandwidth and network availability.

26 IGRP uses flash updates, poison reverse updates, holddown times, and split horizon. How often does it broadcast its routing table updates?

A. 90 seconds

B. 10 seconds

C. 30 seconds

D. 45 seconds

Ans A

27 The command "show IP protocol" displays which information?

A. routing timers

B. network information

C. contents of the IP routing table

D. information about all known network and subnetworks

Ans A & B

"show IP protocol" displays routing timers and network information. "show IP route" displays the routing table with information about all known networks and subnetworks.

28 When using RIP, routing updates are broadcast every ____ seconds.

A. 30

B. 10

C. 60

D. 90

Ans: A

Novell's RIP updates routing tables every 60 seconds, Apple's RTMP is every 10 seconds, routers ARP every 60 seconds, DECnet hosts and IGRP signal every 15 seconds, and Banyan VINES signals every 90 seconds.

29 An autonomous system can only exist if all routers in that system meet which criteria?

A. interconnected

B. run the same routing protocol

C. assigned same autonomous system number

D. run IGRP only

E. run RIP only

Ans A,B &C

An autonomous system is a set of routers and networks under the same administration. Each router must be interconnected, run the same routing protocol, and assigned the same autonomous system number. The network Information Center (NIC) assigns a unique autonomous system number to enterprises.

30 A default route is analogous to a _________.

A. default gateway

B. static route

C. dynamic route

D. one-way route

Ans: A

A default route is analogous to a default gateway. It is used to reduce the length of routing tables and to provide complete routing capabilities when a router might not know the routes to all other networks.

31 Routers can learn about destinations through static routes, default, or dynamic routing. By default, a router will use information derived from __________.

A. IGRP

B. RIP

C. IP

D. TCP

Ans A

The quality of information is rated:

Connected interface 0

Static route 1

IGRP 100

RIP 120

Unknown 255

The lower the value, the more reliable the source with 255 signifying information that the router will ignore. So, the router will use IGRP, rated at 100, before RIP, rated at 120.

32 You are logged into a router, what command would show you the IP addresses of routers connected to you?

A. show cdp neighbors detail

B. show run

C. show neighbors

D. show cdp

Ans A

33 As a system administrator, you perform an extended ping at the privileged EXEC prompt. As part of the display, you see "Set DF bit in IP header? [yes] :" What would happen if you answered no at the prompt.

A. This lets the router fragment the packet.

B. It tells the router not to fragment the packet.

C. This lets the router direct the packet to the destination it finds in its routing table.

D. It tell the router to send the packet to the next hop router

Ans A

"Set DF bit in IP header?" is a response to an extended ping at the router. If you answer yes (the default) the router will not fragment the packet. If you answer no, the router will fragment the packet.

34 You have typed "ping" 172.16.101.1 and get the following display: Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echoes to 172.16.101.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

What does the "." signify?

A. That one message timed out.

B. That all messages were successful.

C. That one message was successful.

D. That one message completed in under the allotted timeframe.

Ans A

The possible responses from the ping command are: ! Successful receipt of an echo reply. Timed out waiting for a reply U Destination unreachable C Congestion-experienced packet I Ping interrupted ? Packet type unknown & Packet TTL exceeded

35 Which command, that is used to test address configuration, uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each router.

A. trace

B. ping

C. telnet

D. bootp

Ans: A

The Cisco IOS EXEC command "trace [protocol] [destination]" is used to discover routes that packets will travel to their destination hosts. Trace uses TTL (Time to Live) values to report destination route information.

36 What does the command "IP name-server 255.255.255.255" accomplish?

A. It sets the domain name lookup to be a local broadcast.

B. This is an illegal command.

C. It disables domain name lookup.

D. The command is now defunct and has been replaced by "IP server-name ip any"

Ans A

By default DNS is enabled on a router with a server address of 255.255.255.255, which provides for a local broadcast.

37 As a system administrator, you need to provide your routers with a Domain Name System (DNS) server. How many DNS servers can you specify with one command?

A. 6

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Ans A

You can only specify six name servers in one command. The syntax is "IP name-server server-address1 [[ server-address2 ]...server-address6]. You must also enable DNS.

38 How would you configure one host name that points to two IP addresses?

A. IP host jacob 1.0.0.5 2.0.0.8

B. IP jacob 1.0.0.5 2.0.0.8

C. IP host jacob 1.0.0.5

D. IP host duplicate "all"

Ans A

The correct syntax is IP host name [ TCP-port-number ] address [ address ]..... So, "IP host P1R1 1.0.0.5 2.0.0.8" is the correct choice. "IP host jacob 1.0.0.5" only points the host name jacob to one IP address--1.0.0.5.

39 The following selections show the command prompt and the configuration of the IP network mask. Which two are correct?

A. Router#term IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }

B. Router(config-if)#IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }

C. Router(config-if)#netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }

D. Router#ip netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }

Ans A & B

Router#term IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal } and Router(config-if)#IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal } are correct. You can configure the mask for the current session and you can configure it for a specific line.

40 When configuring the subnet mask for an IP address, which formats can be used?

A. dotted-decimal.

B. Hexadecimal

C. Bit-count

D. Octal

E. Binary

Ans A, B &C

41 You are given the following address: 153.50.6.27/25. Determine the subnet mask, address class, subnet address, and broadcast address.

A. 255.255.255.128, B,153.50.6.0, 153.50.6.127

B. 255.255.255.128, C,153.50.6.0, 153.50.6.127

C. 255.255.255.128, C,153.50.6.127, 153.50.6.0

D. 255.255.255.224, C,153.50.6.0, 153.50.6.127

Ans A

42 You are given the following address: 128.16.32.13/30. Determine the subnet mask, address class, subnet address, and broadcast address.

A. 255.255.255.252, B,128.16.32.12, 128.16.32.15

B. 255.255.255.252, C,128.16.32.12, 128.16.32.15

C. 255.255.255.252, B,128.16.32.15, 128.16.32.12

D. 255.255.255.248, B,128.16.32.12, 128.16.32.15

Ans A

43 You are given the following address: 15.16.193.6/21. Determine the subnet mask, address class, subnet address, and broadcast address.

A. 255.255.248.0, A, 15.16.192.0, 15.16.199.255

B. 255.255.248.0, B, 15.16.192.0, 15.16.199.255

C. 255.255.248.0, A, 15.16.199.255, 14.15.192.0

D. 255.255.242.0, A, 15.16.192.0, 15.16.199.255

Ans A

44 You have an IP host address of 201.222.5.121 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248. What is the broadcast address?

A. 201.222.5.127

B. 201.222.5.120

C. 201.222.5.121

D. 201.222.5.122

Ans A

The easiest way to calculate this is to subtract 255.255.255.248 (subnet mask) from 255.255.255.255, this

equals 7. Convert the address 201.222.5.121 to binary--11001001 11011110 00000101 01111001. Convert the

mask 255.255.255.248 to binary--11111111 11111111 11111111 11111000. AND them together to get: 11001001 11011110

00000101 01111000 or 201.222.5.120. 201.222.5.120 is the subnet address, add 7 to this address for 201.222.5.127 or

the broadcast address. 201.222.5.121 through 201.222.5.126 are the valid host addresses.

45 Given the address 172.16.2.120 and the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. How many hosts are available?

A. 254

B. 510

C. 126

D. 16,372

Ans A

172.16.2 120 is a standard Class B address with a subnet mask that allows 254 hosts. You are a network administrator and have been assigned the IP address of 201.222.5.0. You need to have 20 subnets with 5 hosts per subnet. The subnet mask is 255.255.255.248.

46 Which addresses are valid host addresses?

A. 201.222.5.17

B. 201.222.5.18

C. 201.222.5.16

D. 201.222.5.19

E. 201.222.5.31

Ans A,B & D

Subnet addresses in this situation are all in multiples of 8. In this example, 201.222.5.16 is the subnet, 201.22.5.31 is the broadcast address. The rest are valid host IDs on subnet 201.222.5.16.

47 You are a network administrator and have been assigned the IP address of 201.222.5.0. You need to have 20 subnets with

5 hosts per subnet. What subnet mask will you use?

A. 255.255.255.248

B. 255.255.255.128

C. 255.255.255.192

D. 255.255.255.240

Ans A

By borrowing 5 bits from the last octet, you can. have 30 subnets. If you borrowed only 4 bits you could only have 14 subnets. The formula is (2 to the power of n)-2. By borrowing 4 bits, you have (2x2x2x2)-2=14. By borrowing 5 bits, you have (2x2x2x2x2)-2=30. To get 20 subnets, you would need to borrow 5 bits so the subnet mask would be 255.255.255.248.

48 You are given the IP address of 172.16.2.160 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. What is the network address in binary?

A. 10101100 00010000

B. 00000010 10100000

C. 10101100 00000000

D. 11100000 11110000

Ans: A

To find the network address, convert the IP address to binary--10101100 000100000 00000010 10100000--then ANDed it with the subnet mask--11111111 11111111 00000000 00000000. The rest is 10101100 00010000 00000000 00000000, which is 172.16.0.0 in decimal.

The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.

49 Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?

A. 128 to 191, Class B

B. 192 to 223 Class B

C. 128 to 191, Class C

D. 192 to 223, Class C

Ans B & C

Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and 240 to 255, Class E. The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.

50 Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?

A. 1 to 126, Class A

B. 128 to 191, Class A

C. 1 to 126, Class B

D. 128 to 191, Class B

Ans:B & C.

51 Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?

A. 240 - 255, Class D

B. 240 - 255, Class E

C. 224 - 239, Class D

D. 224 - 239, Class E

Ans A & D

Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and 240 to 255, Class E.

52 Which IP Address Class is INCORRECTLY paired with its range of network numbers?

A. Class A addresses include 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.0

B. Class A addresses include 1.0.0.0 through 126.0.0.0

C. Class B addresses include 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.0.0

D. Class C addresses include 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.0

E. Class D addresses include 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.0

Ans A

Class A addresses include 1.0.0.0 through 126.0.0.0

Class B addresses include 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.0.0

Class C addresses include 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.0

Class D addresses include 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.0

53 Which IP Address Class can have 16 million subnets but support 254 hosts?

A. Class C

B. Class A

C. Class B

D. Class D

Ans A

Possible Subnets IP Address Class Possible Hosts

254 A 16M.

64K B 64K

16M C 254

54 Which IP Address Class can have 64,000 subnets with 64,000 hosts per subnet?

A. Class B

B. Class A

C. Class C

D. Class D

Ans A

IP Address Class Possible Subnets Possible Hosts

254 A 16M

64K B 64K

16M C 254

55 There are two processes to pair MAC address with IP addresses. Which process finds an IP address from a MAC address?

A. RARP

B. ARP

C. RIP

D. IGRP

Ans A

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) maps an IP address to the MAC address, RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) maps the MAC address to the IP address. ARP and RARP work at the internet layer of the Internet Model or the network layer of the OSI model.

56 When the router runs out of buffer space, this is called ________.

A. Source Quench

B. Redirect

C. Information Request

D. Low Memory

Ans A

Source quench is the process where the destination router, or end internetworking device will "quench" the date from the "source", or the source router. This usually happens when the destination router runs out of buffer space to process packets.

57 Which protocol carries messages such as destination Unreachable, Time Exceeded, Parameter Problem, Source Quench, Redirect, Echo, Echo Reply, Timestamp, Information Request, Information Reply, Address Request, and Address Reply?

A. ICMP

B. UDP

C. TCP

D. TFTP

E. FTP

Ans A

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a network layer internet protocol described in RFC # 792. ICMP reports IP packet information such as destination Unreachable, Time Exceeded, Parameter Problem, Source Quench, Redirect, Echo, Echo Reply, Timestamp, Information Request, Information Reply, Address Request, and Address Reply.

58 Two of the protocols that can be carried in the Protocol field of an IP packet are?

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. FTP

D. TFTP

Ans A & B

The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:

VERS (Version number - 16 bits)

HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)

Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)

Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)

Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)

TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)

Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)

Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)

Source IP Address (32 bits)

Destination IP Address (32 bits)

IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits)

Data (4 bits).

59 Where would network testing be included in an IP packet?

A. IP Options field

B. Identification field

C. Type of Service field

D. Reservation field

Ans A

The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:

VERS (Version number - 16 bits)

HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)

Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)

Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)

Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet – 4 bits)

Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)

TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)

Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)

Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)

Source IP Address (32 bits)

Destination IP Address (32 bits)

IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits)

Data (4 bits).

60 What field tells the Internet layer how to handle an IP packet?

A. Type of Service

B. Identification

C. Flags

D. Frag Offset

Ans A

The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:

VERS (Version number - 16 bits)

HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)

Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)

Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)

Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)

TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)

Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)

Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)

Source IP Address (32 bits)

Destination IP Address (32 bits)

IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits) Data (4 bits).

61 Which fields of an IP packet provide for fragmentation of datagrams to allow differing MTUs in the internet?

A. Identification

B. Flags

C. Frag Offset

D. Type of Service

E. Total Length

Ans A, B & C

The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:

VERS (Version number - 16 bits)

HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)

Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)

Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)

Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)

TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)

Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)

Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)

Source IP Address (32 bits)

Destination IP Address (32 bits)

IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits)

Data (4 bits).

62 Which processes does TCP, but not UDP, use?

A. Windowing

B. Acknowledgements

C. Source Port

D. Destination Port

Ans A & B

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) does not use sequence or acknowledgement fields in transmission.

UDP is a connectionless and unreliable protocol, since there is no delivery checking mechanism in the UDP data format.

63 What is the UDP datagram format?

A. Source Port - 16 bits, Destination Port - 16 bits, Length - 16 Bits, Checksum - 16 bits, Data

B. Destination Port - 16 bits, Source Port - 16 bits, Length - 16 Bits, Checksum - 16 bits, Data

C. Source Port - 16 bits, Destination Port - 16 bits, Checksum - 16 Bits, Length - 16 bits, Data

D. Source Port - 8 bits, Destination Port - 8 bits, Length -8 Bits, Checksum - 8 bits, Data

Ans A

The UDP format for a segment is as follows:

Source Port 16 bits

Destination Port 16 bits

Length 16 bits

Checksum 16 bits

Data xx bits

64 What is the function of DDR on Cisco routers?

A. DDR is dial--on-demand routing. It provides a continuous LAN only connection.

B. DDR is dial-on-demand routing. It provides routing for high volume traffic.

C. DDR is dial--on-demand routing. It provides a continuous WAN connection.

D. DDR is dial-on-demand routing. It provides routing for low volume and periodic traffic.

Answer: D

DDR is dial-on-demand routing. It provides routing for low volume and periodic traffic. It initiates a call to a remote site when there is traffic to transmit.

65 What are the two types of access lists that can be configured on a Cisco router?

A. Standard

B. Extended

C. Filtering

D. Packet

Ans: A & B

The access lists are standard and extended. Standard access lists for IP check the source address of packets that could be routed. Extended access lists can check the source and destination packet plus check for specific protocols, port numbers, etc.

66 When using access lists, what does a Cisco router check first?

A. To see if the packet is routable or bridgeable

B. The destination address

C. The source address

D. The packet contents

Ans A

The first thing checked is to see if the packet is routable or bridgeable. If it is not, the packet will be dropped.

67 How many access lists are allowed per interface?

A. One per port, per protocol

B. Two per port, per protocol

C. Unlimited

D. Router interface +1 per port.

Ans: A

Only one access list is allowed per interface. An access list must have conditions that test true for all packets that use the access list.

68 What do the following commands accomplish?

access-list 1 deny 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 1 permit any interface ethernet 0

IP access-group 1 out

A. This will block traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0 and allow all other traffic.

B. This will allow traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0 and block all other traffic.

C. All traffic is allowed.

D. All traffic is blocked.

Ans: A

This will block traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0 and allow all other traffic. The first statement "access-list 1 deny 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255" will deny access to the subnet 172.16.4.0.

69 What do the following statements in an extended access list accomplish?

access-list 101 deny TCP 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 eq 21

access-list 101 deny TCP 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 eq 20

access-list 101 permit TCP 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

A. This will block ftp traffic.

B. This will block http traffic.

C. This will permit ftp traffic.

D. This will permit tftp traffic.

Ans: A

This will block ftp traffic since ftp uses ports 20 and 21.

70 Access lists are numbered. Which of the following ranges could be used for an IP access list?

A. 600 - 699

B. 100 - 199

C. 1 - 99

D. 800 - 899

E. 1000 - 1099

Answer: B & C

AppleTalk access lists use numbers in the 600 - 699 range. IP uses 1 - 99 for standard access lists or 100-199 for extended access lists. IPX uses 800 - 899 or 900 - 999 for extended access lists. IPX SAP filters use 1000 - 1099.

71 Cisco routers use wildcard masking to identify how to check or ignore corresponding IP address bits. What does setting a wildcard mask bit to 0 cause the router to do?

A. It tells the router to check the corresponding bit value.

B. It tells the router to ignore the corresponding bit value.

C. It tells the router to check its alternate routing list.

D. It tells the router to use its primary routing list.

Ans A

It tells the router to check the corresponding bit value.

72 You are a system administrator and you want to deny access to a group of computers with addresses 172.30.16.0 to 172.30.31.0. Which wildcard mask would you use?

A. 0.0.15.255

B. 0.0.255.255

C. 0.0.31.255

D. 0.0.127.255

E. 0.0.255.255

Ans: A

0.0.15.255 will check the last 13 bits of an address so that computers 172.30.16.0 to 172.30.31.0 will be denied access. 0.0.31.255 would check the last 6 binary digits and deny access to addresses 172.30.32.0 to 172.30.63.0. 0.0.127.255 would check the last 7 binary digits and deny access to addresses 172.30.64.0 to 172.30.127.0. 0.0.255.255 would deny 172.30.0.0 to 172.30.254.0. If you write decimal 15 in binary, you have 0001111, the 1's tell the router to ignore address with these bits set; 0's tell the router to check the bits. The third octet for 172.30.16.0 is 00010000. The third octet for 172.30.31.0 would be 00011111. So, traffic from these addresses would be denied.

73 In order to limit the quantity of numbers that a system administrator has to enter, Cisco can use which abbreviation to indicate 0.0.0.0?

A. host

B. any

C. all

D. include

Ans: A

Cisco uses host to specify 0.0.0.0. This tells the router to check all. Cisco uses any to specify 255.255.255.255. This tells the router to ignore all and permit any address to use an access list test.

74 What do the following commands accomplish?

access-list 1 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

interface ethernet 0

IP access-group 1 out

interface ethernet 1

IP access-group 1 out

A. Only traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0 will be blocked.

B. Only traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0 will be forwarded. Non-172.16.0.0 network traffic is blocked.

C. Non-172.16.0.0 traffic will be forwarded.

D. All traffic will be forwarded.

Ans: B

Only traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0 will be forwarded. Non-172.16.0.0 network traffic is blocked. The wildcard mask 0.0.255.255 tells the router to check the first 2 octets and to ignore the last 2 octets.

75 When using access lists, it is important where those access lists are placed. Which statement best describes access list placement?

A. Put standard access lists as near the destination as possible. Put extended access lists as close to the source as possible.

B. Put extended access lists as near the destination as possible. Put standard access lists as close to the source as possible.

C. It isn't import where access lists are placed since the router will read and cache the whole list.

D. Put access lists as close to corporate headquarters as possible.

Ans A

Put standard access lists as near the destination as possible. Put extended access lists as close to the source as possible. Standard access lists don't specify the destination address.

76 As the system administrator, you enter the following commands at the command prompt:

ipx routing

access-list 800 permit 2b 4d

int e0

ipx network 4d

ipx access-group 800 out

int e1

ipx network 2b

int e2

ipx network 3c

77.What did these command accomplish?

A. Traffic from network 4c destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.

B. Traffic from network 3c destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.

C. Traffic from network 2b destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.

D. Traffic from network 4d destined for network 2d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.

Ans C

Traffic from network 2b destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0. The other interfaces E1 and E2 are not subject to the access list since they lack the access group statement to link them to access list 800.

78 The following commands were entered at the command prompt of a Cisco router. What do they accomplish?

access-list 1000 deny 9e.1234.5678.1212 4

access-list 1000 permit -1

interface ethernet 0

ipx network 9e

interface ethernet 1

ipx network 4a

interface serial 0

ipx network 1

ipx output-sap-filter 1000

A. File server advertisements from server 9e.1234.5678.1212 will not be forwarded on interface S0.

B. All other SAP services, other than file server, from any source will be forwarded on S0.

C. All other SAP services, other than print server, from any source will be forwarded on S0.

D. Print server advertisements from server 9e.1234.5678.1212 will not be forwarded on interface S0.

Ans A & B

File server advertisements from server 9e.1234.5678.1212 will not be forwarded on interface S0. All other SAP services, other than file server, from any source will be forwarded on S0.

79 You receive "input filter list is 800 and output filter list is 801" as part of the output from a show interfaces command. What kind of traffic are you filtering?

A. IPX/SPX

B. TCP/IP

C. LocalTalk

D. DDR

Ans: A

Because the access list is numbered in the 800 range, you are filtering IPX/SPX traffic.

80 Which service uses telephone control messages and signals between the transfer points along the way to the called destination?

A. Signaling System 7 (SS7)

B. Time-division Multiplexing (TDM)

C. X.25

D. Frame relay

Ans: A

Signaling System 7 (SS7) uses telephone control messages and signals between the transfer points along the way to the called destination. Time-division Multiplexing (TDM) has information from multiple sources and allocates bandwidth on a single media. Circuit switching uses signaling to determine the call route, which is a dedicated path between the sender and the receiver. Basic telephone service and Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use TDM circuits. X.25 and Frame Relay services have information contained in packets or frames to share non-dedicated bandwidth. X.25 avoids delays for call setup. Frame Relay uses permanent virtual circuits (PVCs).

81 Which service takes information from multiple sources and allocates bandwidth on a single media?

A. Time-division Multiplexing (TDM)

B. Signaling System 7 (SS7)

C. X.25

D. Frame relay

Ans A

82 Which three devices can be used to convert the user data from the DTE into a form acceptable to the WAN service's facility?

A. Modem

B. CSU/DSU

C. TA/NT1

D. CO

E. SS7

Ans A, B & C

A modem, CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit), or TA/NT1 (Terminal Adapter/Network Termination 1) can be used to convert the user data from the DTE into a form acceptable to the WAN service's facility.

83 What is the juncture at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins?

A. Demarc

B. CO

C. Local loop

D. Last-mile

Ans A

The demarcation or demarc is the juncture at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins. The CO (Central Office) is the nearest point of presence for the provider's WAN service. The local loop or "last-mile" is the cabling that extends from the demarc into the WAN service provider's central office.

84 You can access three forms of WAN services with Cisco routers. Select the three forms:

A. Switched or relayed services

B. Interface front end to IBM enterprise data center computers

C. Using protocols that connect peer-to-peer devices like HDLC or PPP encapsulation.

D. IPX/SPX

E. NetBEUI

Ans: A, B & C

You can access three forms of WAN services with Cisco routers. Switched or relayed services include X.25, Frame Relay, and ISDN. An interface front end to IBM enterprise data center computers includes SDLC. And, you can access the services of WAN providers using protocols that connect peer devices such as HDLC and PPP encapsulation. IPX/SPX and NetBEUI are LAN protocols.

85 Select the fields for the Cisco HDLC protocol:

A. Flag, Address, Control

B. Flag, Address, Control, Protocol, LCP (Code, Identifier, Length, Data), FCS, Flag

C. Flag, Address, Control, Data, FCS, Flag

D. Flag, Address, Control, Proprietary, Data, FCS, Flag

Ans D

The Cisco HDLC frame format is Flag, Address, Control Proprietary, Data, FCS, Flag. The PPP frame format is Flag, Address, Control, Protocol, LCP (Code, Identifier, Length, Data), FCS, Flag. The SDLC and LAPB format is Flag, Address, Control, Data, FCS, Flag.

85: Select the physical interfaces that PPP can be configured on a Cisco router:

A. Asynchronous serial

B. HSSI

C. ISDN

D. Synchronous serial

Ans A, B, C & D

All four of them can carry PPP traffic. HSSI is High Speed Serial Interface.

86 Select the correct statements about PPP and SLIP for WAN communications?

A. PPP uses its Network Control Programs (NCPs) component to encapsulate multiple protocols.

B. PPP can only transport TCP/IP

C. SLIP can only transport TCP/IP.

D. SLIP uses its Network Control Programs (NCPs) component to encapsulate multiple protocols.

Ans A & C

87a Which protocol for PPP LCP (Link Control Protocol) performs a challenge handshake?

A. CHAP

B. PAP

C. UDP

D. IPX

Ans: A

87b Which form of PPP error detection on Cisco routers monitors data dropped on a link?

A. Quality

B. Magic Number

C. Error Monitor

D. Droplink

Ans: A

The Quality protocol monitors data dropped on a link. Magic Number avoids frame looping.

88 Which protocol for PPP provides load balancing across multiple links?

A. Multilink Protocol (MP)

B. Quality

C. Magic Number

D. Stacker

E. Predictor

Ans A

89 As the system administrator, you type "ppp authentication chap pap secret". Which authentication method is used first in setting up a session?

A. secret

B. PAP

C. CHAP

D. PPP/SLIP

Ans C

90 Select the compression protocols for PPP?

A. Stac

B. Predictor

C. Quality

D. Magic Number

Ans: A & B

91 What are the three phases of PPP session establishment?

A. Link establishment phase

B. Authentication phase

C. Network layer protocol phase

D. Handshake phase

E. Dial-in phase

Ans A, B & C

92 What is the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation?

A.) SNAP

B.) Arpa

C.) 802.2

D.) Novell-Ether

E.) SAP

Ans D

93 What must be true for two Routers running IGRP to communicate their routes?

A.) Same autonomous system number

B.) Connected using Ethernet only

C.) Use composite metric

D)Configured for PPP

Ans A

94 The following is partial output from a routing table, identify the 2 numbers in the square brackets; '192.168.10.0 [100/1300] via 10.1.0.1, 00:00:23, Ethernet1'

A.) 100 = metric, 1300 = administrative distance

B.) 100 = administrative distance, 1300 = hop count

C.) 100 = administrative distance, 1300 = metric

D.) 100 = hop count, 1300 = metric

Ans C

95 Identify 3 methods used to prevent routing loops?

A.) Split horizon

B.) Holddown timers

C.) Poison reverse

D.) SPF algorithm

E.) LSP's

Ans A B C

96 Which statement is true regarding full duplex?

A.) Allows for transmission and receiving of data simultaneously

B.) Only works in a multipoint configuration

C.) Does not affect the bandwidth

D.) Allows for transmission and receiving of data but not a the same time

Ans A

Full duplex is just the opposite of half duplex. It handles traffic in both directions simultaneously.

97 Identify the switching method that receives the entire frame then dispatches it?

A.) Cut-through

B.) Receive and forward

C.) Store and forward

D.) Fast forward

Ans C

Store and forward switching receives the entire frame before dispatching it.

98 Identify the purpose of ICMP?

A.) Avoiding routing loops

B.) Send error and control messages

C.) Transporting routing updates

D.) Collision detection

Ans B

ICMP is used to send error and control messages. Ping uses ICMP to carry the echo-request and echo-reply.

99 Which statement is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode?

A.) The '?' only works in Privileged exec

B.) They are identical

C.) They both require the enable password

D.) User exec is a subset of the privileged exec

Ans D

The user exec mode is a subset of the privileged exec mode. Only a certain number of commands are available at the user exec mode.

100 Which OSI layer end to end communication, segmentation and re-assembly?

A.) Network

B.) Transport

C.) Physical

D.) Application

E.) Data-Link

F.) Presentation

Ans B

Layer 4 the Transport layer performs this function.

101 What IP command would you use to test the entire IP stack?

A.) Stack-test

B.) Arp

C.) Telnet

D.) Ping

E.) Trace

Ans C

Because Telnet is an application and it resides at the top of the stack it traverses down the stack and up the stack at the receiving end.

102 Identify the 2 hardware components used to manage and/or configure a router?

A.) Auxiliary port

B.) ROM port

C.) Management port

D.) Console port

Ans A D

The 2 hardware ports used to configure the router are the console and auxiliary ports.

103 What is the default bandwidth of a serial connection?

A.) 1200 baud

B.) 1.544 Mbps (T1)

C.) 10 Mbps

D.) 96Kpbs

Ans B

The default bandwidth is T1.

104 Identify 2 functions of IPX access-lists?

A.) Control SAP traffic

B.) Limit number of Novell servers on a network

C.) Limit number of workstations on a network

D.) Block IPX traffic

Ans A D

IPX access lists are used to restrict IPX traffic and SAP broadcasts.

105 Identify 2 HDLC characteristics?

A.) Default serial encapsulation

B.) Open standard

C.) Supports Stacker compression

D.) Supports point-to-point and multipoint

Ans A D

HDLC is the default serial encapsulation and supports point-to-point and multipoint. It is not an open standard and does not support compression.

106 Identify 3 IP applications?

A.) AURP

B.) ARP

C.) Telnet

D.) SMTP

E.) DNS

F.) RARP

Ans C D E

ARP and AURP are not part the application layer of the TCP/IP stack. SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, Telnet, DNS - Domain Name Services (name to IP resolution).

107 Identify 3 LAN technologies?

A.) FDDI

B.) HDLC

C.) HSSI

D.) X.25

E.) 802.3

F.) 802.5

Ans A E F

The question is asking for 3 LAN technologies, HDLC, HSSI and X.25 are all WAN technologies.

108 Identify the 4 that are not LAN technologies?

A.) HDLC

B.) FDDI

C.) 802.5

D.) HSSI

E.) SDLC

F.) Frame Relay

Ans A D E F

802.5 and FDDI are LAN technologies

109 Which OSI layer supports the communication component of an application?

A.) Data-Link

B.) Physical

C.) Session

D.) Presentation

E.) Application

F.) Transport

Ans E

Layer 7 the Application layer performs this function.

110 Identify the length of an IPX address and it's components?

A.) 80 bits, 48 bits network and 32 bits node

B.) 32 bits, 16 bits network and 16 bits node

C.) None of the above

D.) 80 bits, 32 bits network and 48 bits node

Ans D

IPX address has 2 components; network and node. The network address is 32 bits and the node is 48 bits, total of 80 bits.

111 Identify the administrative distance and appropriate routing protocol?

A.) RIP = 255, IGRP = 100

B.) RIP = 100, IGRP = 120

C.) RIP = 1, IGRP = 0

D.) RIP = 120, IGRP = 100

Ans D

The administrative distance for RIP is 120 and IGRP is 100. The lower the AD the better the routing information.

112 Which OSI layer incorporates the MAC address and the LLC?

A.) Data link

B.) Network

C.) Physcial

D.) Transport

Ans): A

Layer 2 the Data-Link layer incorporates the MAC and LLC sublayers

113 If configuring a Cisco router to connect to a non-Cisco router across a Frame Relay network, which encapsulation type would you select?

A.) Q933a

B.) ISDN

C.) IETF

D.) CISCO

E.) ANSI

Ans C

There are two types of Frame Relay encapsulations; Cisco and IETF. IETF is required when connecting a Cisco to a non-Cisco router.

114 Identify the 2 items that TCP and UDP share in common?

A.) Both use port numbers to identify upper level applications

B.) Operate at the Network layer

C.) Both are Transport protocols

D.) Both are reliable communications

Ans A C

TCP and UPD are both layer 4 Transport protocols and both use port number to identify upper level applications.

115 Identify 3 characteristics of IP RIP?

A.) Distance vector

B.) Administrative distance is 120

C.) Periodic updates every 60 seconds

D.) Uses a composite metric

E.) Can load balance

Ans A B E

IP RIP is a distance vector protocol, it can load balance up to 4 equal cost paths and it's rating of trustworthiness is 120.

116 Which of the following is a layer 2 device?

A.) Switch

B.) Router

C.) Repeater

D.) Hub

Ans A

A Hub and Repeater are layer 1 devices. A Router is a layer 3 device.

117 Identify the definition of demarcation?

A.) Date in which the WAN service contract expires

B.) Cabling which extends from the WAN service provider to the customer

C.) Division of responsibility, where the CPE ends and the local loop begins

D.) Equipment which is located at the customer premises

Ans C

Demarcation is the point in which responsibility changes hands.

118 Identify the 3 key features of the Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A.) Off by default

B.) Will allow for the discovery of layer 3 addresses on neighbor routers

C.) Verify connectivity

D.) Open standard

E.) Does not require any layer 3 protocols to be configured

Ans B C E

CDP is used for 2 basic reasons; neighbor connectivity and layer 3 discovery if configured. It is proprietary and is on by default.

119 Identify the 3 characteristics of IPX RIP?

A.) Distance vector

B.) Does not support multiple paths

C.) 60 second updates

D.) Default encapsulation is SAP

E.) Uses ticks and hop count as a metric

Ans A C E

IPX RIP is a distance vector routing protocol, it does support multiple paths, the default encapsulation is 'novell-ether', it uses tick count as a primary metric and hop count as a tie breaker and it sends it’s updates every 60 seconds.

120 Identify the access-list range for an extended IP access-list?

A.) 800 - 899

B.) 1 - 99

C.) 1000 - 1099

D.) 100 - 199

Ans D

IP extended access-lists use the number range of 100-199.

121 Identify the X.25 addressing standard?

A.) X.121

B.) X.25a

C.) ITU-1

D.) Q933a

Ans A

The X.25 layer 3 addressing standards is X.121.

122 Identify 3 features of IGRP?

A.) Composite metric

B.) New horizon

C.) Flash updates

D.) 60 periodic updates

E.) Poison reverse

Ans A C E

IGRP uses a composite metric made up of bandwidth and delay by default, it updates every 60 seconds and will trigger an update if the topology changes.

123 Where is the backup configuration file stored?

A.) RAM

B.) ROM

C.) Console

D.) NVRAM

Ans D

One location to store the backup configuration is NVRAM.

124 Identify the correct pair of Novell Ethernet encapsulation and Cisco terminology?

A.) Ethernet II, Snap

B.) Ethernet 802.3, Novell-Ether

C.) Ethernet SNAP, Arpa

D.) Ethernet 802.2, Snap

Ans B

The default IPX LAN encapsulation is Novell-Ether which is 802.3

125 Identify 3 characteristics regarding IP access-lists?

A.) Can be configured as a standard access-list

B.) Can be run from another router running IP

C.) Can be configured as a named access-list

D.) Are the same as IPX access-lists

E.) Can be configured as an extended access-list

Ans A C E

There are 3 types of IP access-lists; standard, extended and named. Named access-lists can be either standard or extended depending on how they are configured.

126 Identify 3 ways in which a router can be configured?

A.) TFTP

B.) Nvram

C.) Ping

D.) Console

E.) Trace

Ans A B D

Changes to the configuration can be entered via the console, a config stored in NVRAM or on a TFTP server. Trace and ping are tools to verify connectivity.

127 A traffic light is an example of what type of mechanism?

A.) Collision detection

B.) Flow control

C.) Sequence numbering

D.) Network management

Ans B

A Traffic light is an example of flow control.

128 Windowing is a type of?

A.) Negative acknowledgement

B.) Address resolution

C.) Layer transition mechanism

D.) Flow control

Ans D

Windowing allow the sender and receiver to dictate how much information that can be received prior to an acknowledgement. It is a form of flow control.

129 Identify the 2 types of access-list filters that control SAP traffic?

A.) Novell-ether

B.) Arpa

C.) Input-sap-filter

D.) Round-robin

E.) Output-sap-filter

Ans C E

SAP's can be blocked by 2 methods; inbound and outbound.

130 Identify the 3 guidelines for routers in the same autonomous system?

A.) Must be configured for IGRP or RIP

B.) Interconnected

C.) Assigned the same autonomous system number

D.) Configured for the same routing protocol

E.) Must be same model of router

Ans B C D

Autonomous system must be interconnected, assigned the same AS # and configured with the same routing protocol.

131 Identify the hardware component used to store buffers, tables, running-configuration etc?

A.) NVRAM

B.) ROM

C.) RAM

D.) Flash

Ans C

RAM is the dynamic memory area. ROM contains the boot strap code, NVRAM contains the startup-config and Flash contains the IOS.

132 Identify 3 UDP characteristics?

A.) Reliable communication protocol

B.) Applications that use UDP must incorporate reliability

C.) Connection-less oriented

D.) Incorporates no handshaking

Ans B C D

UPD is a layer 4 Transport protocol. It is connection-less because it does establish a connection therefore the 3 step handshake is not needed, it does NOT implement any flow control or acknowledgments. Any application that uses UDP must incorporate any needed reliability.

133 Identify the IPX standard access-list number range?

A.) 600 - 699

B.) 1000 - 1099

C.) 1 - 99

D.) 100 - 199

E.) 800 - 899

Ans E

IPX standard access-list range is 800-899.

134 Which OSI layer provides best effort end to end packet delivery?

A.) Data-Link

B.) Presentation

C.) Network

D.) Transport

E.) Physical

F.) Application

Ans C

Layer 3 the Network layer performs this function.

135 Identify the 2 methods to modify the routers boot sequence?

A.) Setup program

B.) Boot system commands

C.) RXBoot

D.) Config-register

Ans B D

'Boot system' command the 'config-register' are used to manipulate the boot sequence.

136 Identify the 3 pieces of hardware you would not install to prevent broadcasts?

A.) Switch

B.) Repeater

C.) Bridge

D.) Router

Ans A B C

Router are implemented not only to break up networks into smaller segments but they are used to block broadcasts.

137 Identify 2 features of PPP PAP authentication?

A.) Username and password is sent in clear text

B.) Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection

C.) More secure than CHAP

D.) Remote node is control of authentication process

Ans A D

PPP PAP authentication sends the username and passwords in clear text and the remote node initiates the authentication process.

138 Identify the switching method that examines the destination MAC address as the frame is being received then begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame?

A.) Fragment-free

B.) Store and Forward

C.) Cut-through

D.) Fast forward

Ans C

Cut through examines the destination MAC address and begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame.

139 Identify 1 characteristic of RARP?

A.) IP to MAC address translation

B.) Connectionless delivery of packets

C.) Can be used to initiate remote O/S load sequence

D.) Generates error and control messages

Ans C

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol is used to obtain a layer 3 address if the MAC address is known which then facilitates the loading of the O/S.

140 Identify the protocol to test connectivity without configuring any layer 3 protocols?

A.) TCP

B.) Ping

C.) IP

D.) CDP

E.) Telnet

Ans D

CDP can be used to verify connectivity prior to any layer 3 protocols being configured.

141 LMI operates between the Frame Switch and what other device?

A.) CPE device

B.) Another Frame Switch

C.) X.25 switch

D.) Novell File Server

Ans A

LMI stands for local management interface. It operates between the Frame Relay switch and the customer equipment.

142 Identify IPX SAP and it's purpose?

A.) Sonet Access Pipe - interface to Sonet ring

B.) Service Advertising Protocol - advertise services

C.) Server Appletalk Protocol - appletalk directory services

D.) Service Access Point - identify upper layer protocols

Ans B

SAP is an Novell protocol to advertise services.

143 Identify the default values that make up IGRP's composite metric?

A.) Bandwidth

B.) Load

C.) Reliability

D.) MTU

E.) Delay

Ans A E

IGRP can be configured to use all 5 within it's metric. By default it uses bandwidth and delay.

144 Identify the default serial encapsulation?

A.) ISDN

B.) HDLC

C.) SDLC

D.) Frame Relay

E.) PPP

Ans B

The default serial encapsulation is HDLC.

145 Identify the purpose of ARP?

A.) Avoiding routing loops

B.) Determining a workstation's IP address

C.) Sending a directed broadcast

D.) Determining a workstation's MAC address

Ans D

ARP is used to find a devices MAC address given an IP address.

146 What is the purpose of the DLCI?

A.) Identifies the remote routers

B.) Contained with a 802.2 frame for routing purposes

C.) Used with PPP during authentication

D.) Identifies the PVC in a Frame Relay network

Ans D

DLCI stands for Data Link Connection Identifier. It identifies the local PVC.

147 Identify 3 characteristics of the Network layer (OSI layer 3)?

A.) Connection oriented

B.) Path determination

C.) Supports multiplexing

D.) Manages sessions

E.) Packet forwarding

Ans B C E

The network layer is responsible for routing which entails learning the paths, selecting the best path and forwarding the packet. Because it services multiple layer 4 protocols it multiplexes.

148 Identify 3 characteristics of switches?

A.) Increase available bandwidth

B.) Decrease broadcast traffic

C.) Support full duplex in a multipoint topology

D.) Make forwarding decision using MAC address

E.) Create collision domains

Ans A D E

Switches operate at layer 2. They increase bandwidth by reducing the number of devices sharing the media. They isolate collisions. Like a bridge they forward traffic based upon layer 2 address/ MAC address.

149 Which OSI layer handles physical address, network topology?

A.) Presentation

B.) Physical

C.) Transport

D.) Application

E.) Data-Link

F.) Network

Ans E

Layer 2 the Data-Link layer performs this function.

150 Identify 2 reasons for disabling CDP?

A.) If the router is not configured for RIP

B.) Save bandwidth by eliminating overhead

C.) If the router is configured for Appletalk

D.) When connected to a non-Cisco router

Ans B D

CDP can be disabled here are a couple of reasons. Connecting a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. Don't want to exchange CDP information to save bandwidth.

Cobol Interview Questions

2008-08-29T11:15:00.000-07:00

1.Name the divisions in a COBOL program.

Identification Division, Environment Division, Data Division, Procedure Division.

2.What are the different data types available in COBOL?

Alpha-numeric (X), alphabetic (A) and numeric (9).

3.What does the INITIALIZE verb do? –

Alphabetic, Alphanumeric fields & alphanumeric edited items are set to SPACES.

Numeric, Numeric edited items set to ZERO.

FILLER , OCCURS DEPENDING ON items left untouched.

4.What is 77 level used for ?

Elementary level item. Cannot be subdivisions of other items (cannot be qualified), nor can they be subdivided themselves.

5.What is 88 level used for ?

For condition names.

6.What is level 66 used for ?

For RENAMES clause.

7.What does the IS NUMERIC clause establish ?

IS NUMERIC can be used on alphanumeric items, signed numeric & packed decimal items and usigned numeric & packed decimal items. IS NUMERIC returns TRUE if the item only consists of 0-9. However, if the item being tested is a signed item, then it may contain 0-9, + and - .

8.How do you define a table/array in COBOL?

01 ARRAYS.

05 ARRAY1 PIC X(9) OCCURS 10 TIMES.

05 ARRAY2 PIC X(6) OCCURS 20 TIMES INDEXED BY WS-INDEX.

9.Can the OCCURS clause be at the 01 level?

No.

10.What is the difference between index and subscript?

Subscript refers to the array occurrence while index is the displacement (in no of bytes) from the beginning of the array. An index can only be modified using PERFORM, SEARCH & SET.

Need to have index for a table in order to use SEARCH, SEARCH ALL.

11.What is the difference between SEARCH and SEARCH ALL?

SEARCH - is a serial search.

SEARCH ALL - is a binary search & the table must be sorted ( ASCENDING/DESCENDING KEY clause to be used & data loaded in this order) before using SEARCH ALL.

12.What should be the sorting order for SEARCH ALL?

It can be either ASCENDING or DESCENDING. ASCENDING is default. If you want the search to be done on an array sorted in descending order, then while defining the array, you should give DESCENDING KEY clause. (You must load the table in the specified order).

13. What is binary search?

Search on a sorted array. Compare the item to be searched with the item at the center. If it matches, fine else repeat the process with the left half or the right half depending on where the item lies.

14. My program has an array defined to have 10 items. Due to a bug, I find that even if the program access the 11th item in this array, the program does not abend. What is wrong with it?

Must use compiler option SSRANGE if you want array bounds checking. Default is NOSSRANGE.

15.How do you sort in a COBOL program? Give sort file definition, sort statement syntax and meaning.

Syntax:

SORT file-1 ON ASCENDING/DESCENDING KEY key....

USING file-2

GIVING file-3.

USING can be substituted by INPUT PROCEDURE IS para-1 THRU para-2

GIVING can be substituted by OUTPUT PROCEDURE IS para-1 THRU para-2.

file-1 is the sort workfile and must be described using SD entry in FILE SECTION.

file-2 is the input file for the SORT and must be described using an FD entry in FILE SECTION and SELECT clause in FILE CONTROL.

file-3 is the outfile from the SORT and must be described using an FD entry in FILE SECTION and SELECT clause in FILE CONTROL.

file-1, file-2 & file-3 should not be opened explicitly.

INPUT PROCEDURE is executed before the sort and records must be RELEASEd to the sort work file from the input procedure.

OUTPUT PROCEDURE is executed after all records have been sorted. Records from the sort work file must be RETURNed one at a time to the output procedure.

16.How do you define a sort file in JCL that runs the COBOL program?

Use the SORTWK01, SORTWK02,..... dd names in the step. Number of sort datasets depends on the volume of data being sorted, but a minimum of 3 is required.

17.What are the two ways of doing sorting in a COBOL program? Give the formats.

See question 16.

18.Give the format of USING and GIVING in SORT statement. What are the restrictions with it?

See question 16. Restrictions - Cannot massage records, canot select records to be sorted.

19.What is the difference between performing a SECTION and a PARAGRAPH?

Performing a SECTION will cause all the paragraphs that are part of the section, to be performed.

Performing a PARAGRAPH will cause only that paragraph to be performed.

20.What is the use of EVALUATE statement?

Evaluate is like a case statement and can be used to replace nested Ifs. The difference between EVALUATE and case is that no 'break' is required for EVALUATE i.e. control comes out of the EVALUATE as soon as one match is made.

21.What are the different forms of EVALUATE statement?

EVALUATE EVALUATE SQLCODE ALSO FILE-STATUS

WHEN A=B AND C=D WHEN 100 ALSO '00'